captaindepth
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That's a reasonable assumption given the distribution of ST-elevation and likely infarct related artery. I'm not concerned about shortening the delay in the 1AVB, but instead increasing the rate.
Yes the rate is what needs to be increased, I guess i was just wondering if atropine would have worked in this case.
Do you think an increased rate would cause more infarction to the heart distal to the occlusion? Is that something we should be concerned about? I have not seen someone deteriorate from this type of rhythm and Im struggling with finding what the threshold should be for more aggressive treatments.