I am getting ready to take EMT-b for the coming summer term and I've been studying hard for about two months reading various texts, including the DOTNSC and the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeon's Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured. The first EMS prepatory text I read was the Kaplan EMT-Basic Exam, and in the pharmacology section of that text there exists the following passage:
"If the chest pain is alleviated with NTG, then the physican may suspect that the cause of the chest pain is not myocardial infarction, but a spasm in the coronary arteries called angina pectoris
Am I to take this as meaning that if the patient is experiencing anginal symptoms that are alleviated by sublingual NTG, then there is not worry of the patient suffering a heart attack during this event?
"If the chest pain is alleviated with NTG, then the physican may suspect that the cause of the chest pain is not myocardial infarction, but a spasm in the coronary arteries called angina pectoris
Am I to take this as meaning that if the patient is experiencing anginal symptoms that are alleviated by sublingual NTG, then there is not worry of the patient suffering a heart attack during this event?