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You're an ALS unit (medic/intermediate) kicked out of your fancy hard post at 2200 for a Priority 1 shortness of breath, responding with an ILS FD. It's about a 12 minute code 3 response which puts you about 20-25 minutes by ground from three capable hospitals, one being a Level II TC the others are you're standard community hospital with interventional cardiology on call.
Upon arrival you find an 82 year old gentleman seated in a lounger in his living room in mild distress speaking with FD personnel already on scene. Pt is A&Ox4. Pt began having SOB and worsening weakness about 1 hour prior to your arrival while watching TV. Pt states he has had "minor" SOB all day but it just recently "got bad". Pt speaks in full sentences but does stop to catch his breath between sentences. Pt denies any recent changes in medications, illness, trauma, chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, dizziness, N/V/D or any other associated symptoms. Pt states he has felt this before 2 weeks prior and spent 3 days in the hospital "because there was fluid around my heart".
Fire immediately shoves a 4 lead into your hand showing A-flutter at a 3:1 conduction with an atrial rate of 140 BPM and a ventricular rate of ~45 BPM.
12-lead confirms A-flutter + RBBB, no ST elevation noted (I'll try to post a picture in a bit, I don't have a scanner). Conduction seems to be changing between 2:1 - 4:1 mostly staying at 3:1 though, lowest ventricular rate noted is ~30. Continuous alarms from the MRx ranging from low SpO2%, multiple PVCs, VT and SVT alarms. You notice what some may argue what appear to be occasional multifocal PVCs, my partner said bigeminal PVCs, I said it was a 2:1 A-flutter.
Vitals:
150/94
HR as noted above, pulse matches the ventricular rate on the monitor and is difficult to palpate.
95% on 2 lpm which the patient wears "all the time", breath sounds clear in all fields
CBG 208 mg/dl
Physical exam is generally unremarkable other than the pt appearing to be pale and appears to becoming more diaphoretic throughout your assessment. Pt is ~6'2" and ~120 kg.
Pt states he would like to be transported for evaluation and of course requests the furthest of the three facilities, about 25 minutes away by ground.
Hx - A-fib, CHF, HTN, Hyperlipidemia, IDDM, RBBB, non-smoker, non-drinker and you find discharge paperwork on the counter that says the pt was released with a dx of a pericardial effusion 2 weeks prior and had radiologically guided pericardiocentesis which resulted in ~900 cc being drained off.
A - NKA/NKDA
M - Amiodarone, diltiazem, lisinopril, lasix, K++, lantus, humalog and a few others I can't remember off the top of my head
My question is what do you want to know and what are your interventions? I'll tell you what I did after I hear some input, I'll tell you now though it wasn't very exciting. Well it made me take a bite out of my boxers but other than that...
This one confused me a bit. I knew what was going on but from the treatment standpoint I was having some trouble deciding where I was going to go.
Upon arrival you find an 82 year old gentleman seated in a lounger in his living room in mild distress speaking with FD personnel already on scene. Pt is A&Ox4. Pt began having SOB and worsening weakness about 1 hour prior to your arrival while watching TV. Pt states he has had "minor" SOB all day but it just recently "got bad". Pt speaks in full sentences but does stop to catch his breath between sentences. Pt denies any recent changes in medications, illness, trauma, chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, dizziness, N/V/D or any other associated symptoms. Pt states he has felt this before 2 weeks prior and spent 3 days in the hospital "because there was fluid around my heart".
Fire immediately shoves a 4 lead into your hand showing A-flutter at a 3:1 conduction with an atrial rate of 140 BPM and a ventricular rate of ~45 BPM.
12-lead confirms A-flutter + RBBB, no ST elevation noted (I'll try to post a picture in a bit, I don't have a scanner). Conduction seems to be changing between 2:1 - 4:1 mostly staying at 3:1 though, lowest ventricular rate noted is ~30. Continuous alarms from the MRx ranging from low SpO2%, multiple PVCs, VT and SVT alarms. You notice what some may argue what appear to be occasional multifocal PVCs, my partner said bigeminal PVCs, I said it was a 2:1 A-flutter.
Vitals:
150/94
HR as noted above, pulse matches the ventricular rate on the monitor and is difficult to palpate.
95% on 2 lpm which the patient wears "all the time", breath sounds clear in all fields
CBG 208 mg/dl
Physical exam is generally unremarkable other than the pt appearing to be pale and appears to becoming more diaphoretic throughout your assessment. Pt is ~6'2" and ~120 kg.
Pt states he would like to be transported for evaluation and of course requests the furthest of the three facilities, about 25 minutes away by ground.
Hx - A-fib, CHF, HTN, Hyperlipidemia, IDDM, RBBB, non-smoker, non-drinker and you find discharge paperwork on the counter that says the pt was released with a dx of a pericardial effusion 2 weeks prior and had radiologically guided pericardiocentesis which resulted in ~900 cc being drained off.
A - NKA/NKDA
M - Amiodarone, diltiazem, lisinopril, lasix, K++, lantus, humalog and a few others I can't remember off the top of my head
My question is what do you want to know and what are your interventions? I'll tell you what I did after I hear some input, I'll tell you now though it wasn't very exciting. Well it made me take a bite out of my boxers but other than that...
This one confused me a bit. I knew what was going on but from the treatment standpoint I was having some trouble deciding where I was going to go.