Ramathorn90
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This post is regarding whether or not to activate this patient into the trauma system or not.
Pt is a 22 y/o presenting with midline lumbar pain 3 days after being involved in a MVA. The Pt states he was the restrained front seat passenger of a vehicle that was traveling approximately 90mph before hopping over the center divide and losing control. It is uncertain as to what type of object the vehicle collided into and how much damage was actually caused to the vehicle. However, no airbag deployment was noted per the Pt, and the Pt states he signed AMA upon EMS arrival at time of MVA. The Pt reports he had no LOC, head pain, neck pain, numbness or tingling in all extremities at any time after the accident. He says he was ambulatory post MVA with no difficulty.The Pt mentioned that he went to visit his chiropractor the next day, and was immediately referred to an MD for further evaluation after the chiropractor noted deformity to his lumbar spine. The Pt then visits his local urgent care clinic and is immediately placed in c-spine precautions by the urgent care MD.
Upon arrival of my partner and I, we find a Pt in no obvious physical distress. Pt states his only complaint is his lumbar pain, which he describes is dead center on his back. We continue with C-spine and full spinal immobilization as noted that the Pt has not had an x-ray.
The question on this run, does this Pt warrant trauma activation criteria in spite of the incident being 3 days prior? Would you activate this Pt into your local trauma system?
Pt is a 22 y/o presenting with midline lumbar pain 3 days after being involved in a MVA. The Pt states he was the restrained front seat passenger of a vehicle that was traveling approximately 90mph before hopping over the center divide and losing control. It is uncertain as to what type of object the vehicle collided into and how much damage was actually caused to the vehicle. However, no airbag deployment was noted per the Pt, and the Pt states he signed AMA upon EMS arrival at time of MVA. The Pt reports he had no LOC, head pain, neck pain, numbness or tingling in all extremities at any time after the accident. He says he was ambulatory post MVA with no difficulty.The Pt mentioned that he went to visit his chiropractor the next day, and was immediately referred to an MD for further evaluation after the chiropractor noted deformity to his lumbar spine. The Pt then visits his local urgent care clinic and is immediately placed in c-spine precautions by the urgent care MD.
Upon arrival of my partner and I, we find a Pt in no obvious physical distress. Pt states his only complaint is his lumbar pain, which he describes is dead center on his back. We continue with C-spine and full spinal immobilization as noted that the Pt has not had an x-ray.
The question on this run, does this Pt warrant trauma activation criteria in spite of the incident being 3 days prior? Would you activate this Pt into your local trauma system?