NYMedic828
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This has been bugging me for a while now and I can't seem to make sense of it.
Here in NYC our triad of medications for anaphylaxis are
Benadryl
Epi
Dexamethasome/methylprednisolone
We also can give albuterol for wheezing.
Benadryl is given for any suspected allergic reaction. If there is airway compromise or potential for it, we go right to epi 0.3 IM.
Corticosteroids are only to be given in the presence of decompensated shock in conjunction with rapid fluid replacement.
My question is
Why don't we give combivent for anaphylaxis like all other respiratory treatment? Is it because we are mainly concerned with the larger airways and atrovent works more at the lower level?
Also, just to be certain. We only give corticosteroids in the presence of decompensated shock, instead of Benadryl. This to my understanding is because of the immunosuppressant effects of corticosteroids which inherently block histamine and other immune regulated responses. Is this correct?
Here in NYC our triad of medications for anaphylaxis are
Benadryl
Epi
Dexamethasome/methylprednisolone
We also can give albuterol for wheezing.
Benadryl is given for any suspected allergic reaction. If there is airway compromise or potential for it, we go right to epi 0.3 IM.
Corticosteroids are only to be given in the presence of decompensated shock in conjunction with rapid fluid replacement.
My question is
Why don't we give combivent for anaphylaxis like all other respiratory treatment? Is it because we are mainly concerned with the larger airways and atrovent works more at the lower level?
Also, just to be certain. We only give corticosteroids in the presence of decompensated shock, instead of Benadryl. This to my understanding is because of the immunosuppressant effects of corticosteroids which inherently block histamine and other immune regulated responses. Is this correct?
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