harold1981
Forum Lieutenant
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Patient is a 87yo in a nursing home with an acute onset of dyspnea. Upon arrival patient presents a GCS of 1-1-1, severe tachypnea, sweating, audible rales (confirmed by auscultation on four lung areas), fluid in the throat, sternal and intracostal retractions and surprisingly an initial oxygen sats of 93%. BP 160/100. No edema on the legs/ankles. No history of CHF, no complaints of chest pain, no signs of aspiration. EKG shows an AFib with a frequency around 100bpm with no signs of ischemia. We start oxygen therapy per nonrebreathing mask, which brings the sats up to 99%, with no improvement in work of breathing. We start 0.4mg of sublingual nitroglycerin and 80mg of furosemide and proceed to transport him, code 3, to a level 1 facility.
Upon arrival in the ED the condition of the patient remains unchanged. He is quickly moved into a CAT-scan and diagnosed with neurogenic pulmonary edema, secondary to a brainstem bleed. Prognosis is infaust.
I have two questions:
1. was treatment with furosemide justified in this case?
2. was RSI indicated based on the clinical presentation, despite the sats of 99%?
Upon arrival in the ED the condition of the patient remains unchanged. He is quickly moved into a CAT-scan and diagnosed with neurogenic pulmonary edema, secondary to a brainstem bleed. Prognosis is infaust.
I have two questions:
1. was treatment with furosemide justified in this case?
2. was RSI indicated based on the clinical presentation, despite the sats of 99%?