I'm not trying to start any wars, just kinda confused. With the first post, you indicated that the lungs were clear bilaterally ("LS- clear and Equal bilat."). Your second post states, "After the my partner gave 2mg of narcan IM the pt. began gagging on the OPA and continued to have a gag reflex when we go to the back of the unit so the decision was made to RSI rather than attempt to just tube her and risk vomiting and aspiration". And now I read in your last post, "She is unresponsive and had vomited and aspirated a bit before we got there...". ????? Did she or did she not vomit PTA?
Anyway, for what I've learned and experienced, and of course subject to all sorts of scrutiny
:
1. Can the patient protect her own airway?
Gag reflex in itself is not the best indicator of whether a patient can protect her airway or not. A better indicator is a swallow reflex, which is a more complex reflex requiring the patient to sense and initiate an effort to move secretions down the esophagus. Could she swallow? Did anyone take a few seconds to watch? I have seen patients with very low GCS scores still preserve an ability to swallow, particularly those who have overdosed on drugs or alcohol. GCS alone is not a good indicator.
I may have to purchase this paper just because it'll bug me down the road if I don't, but the abstract itself is enlightening:
Decreased Glasgow Coma Scale Score Does Not Mandate Endotracheal Intubation in the Emergency Department
Anyway, with the contradicting information presented about this patient so far, this question cannot be answered.
2. Is the patient being oxygenated adequately?
Breathing in itself is not an indication that the airway is protected or that adequate oxygenation is occurring. If the patient has a swallow reflex and can be maintained with her head elevated, can a less invasive means be used instead of an ET tube? How about just long enough to see if a couple of rounds of Narcan might work (seeing that one round apparently improved the patient's responsiveness)?
3. What caused this patient's demise? Personally, I'm on the same boat with the others: Narcan first for the OD scenerio... pharmaceutically-assisted intubation later, if needed. If the patient had already aspirated as suggested in the third post, then then damage has already began. You can tube the patient, deep suction what aspirate you can, push the naloxone, and watch her wake up and fight you to pull the garden hose out of her throat as the Versed quietly wears off when you just turned around "for a second" and not watched her. You'll never get all of the aspirate out with the deep suction anyway, and you risk the tracheal damage from his self-extubation. And on certain patients, they may never be able to breath on their own again once tubed. It's a sad scenerio I've seen happen.
Or, IMHO, better to hope that you can wake the appropriately-positioned patient with the Narcan first and let her cough the crud out of her lungs, on her own. Again though, her ability to swallow is in question, and not something I see being answered in the three contradictory posts.
Just throwing out ideas.