IAems
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So, was there an underlying medical cause?
Called to respond to a board & care for an involuntary psychiatric hold written prior to arrival for "danger to others" by a registered nurse (who is part of a local psychiatric evaluation team). I arrive on scene to find the patient ambulatory and wandering the hallways, with the RN assessing the patient behind a bulletproof glass screen (having made no actual patient contact). The patient is scared off by my uniform and wanders down to her room. RN dismissively gives a report which pretty much is summarized by, "Your patient's in room 24" (it was like trying to pull teeth to even get a med list which included only Prozac and Topamax).
Upon patient contact, patient exhibiting anxiety with severe dissociative speech (either conduction or jargon aphasia, e.g., "I have two stomachs but the moon can hardly be held responsible for a syllable. YOU HAVE NO FEET!! You have no feet.") The RN denies any immediate trauma. With a verbal GCS response of 3, I can't really obtain any sort of verbal assessment; this patient wouldn't even respond, "yes" or "no" or shake their head. Pupils are bilaterally dilated to about 6mm but equal and responsive to light. V/S as follows; HR: 136 W/R, RR: 20 (No accessory muscle use or increased effort of breathing, but seemingly increased tidal volume), BP 150/90, BGL 146. No facial droop. No slurred speech.
Now I'm aware that this sort of speech disorder is common of Schizophrenia, but the RN denies any such history, stating, "Patient only has Bipolar Disorder." To which, I ask about the Topamax which I believe is for Seizures and am told, "No, no, no." When I bring up the tachycardia and hypertension, I'm told, "She's just anxious." So, I transport the patient to the requested facility (12 minutes out) as I'm hoping that the patient's primary physician will be able to answer some of these questions, but instead of taking directly to the psychiatric ward as requested, I decide to clear the patient through the ER for a medical evaluation first.
Well, apparently, according to the doctor, I should have followed the nurse's orders and taken the patient directly up to the psychiatric floor, which I disagree with. The reason for this, I was told, was that ER departments are unable to deal with involuntary psychiatric patients without prior notice (on that note for US practitioners: Is there some sort of EMTLA exception for psychiatric patients that I'm unaware of). Anyway, my patient was apparently medically cleared in a very short period of time, suggesting my assessment was lacking.
Did I overreact? Was this simply undiagnosed schizophrenia masking the symptoms of an anxiety attack? Was I wrong in seeing the apparent S/S of a possible OD? What about postictal from a recent, unwitnessed seizure as the Topamax suggests? Let me know what you think or where to look to learn more. Thanks
Called to respond to a board & care for an involuntary psychiatric hold written prior to arrival for "danger to others" by a registered nurse (who is part of a local psychiatric evaluation team). I arrive on scene to find the patient ambulatory and wandering the hallways, with the RN assessing the patient behind a bulletproof glass screen (having made no actual patient contact). The patient is scared off by my uniform and wanders down to her room. RN dismissively gives a report which pretty much is summarized by, "Your patient's in room 24" (it was like trying to pull teeth to even get a med list which included only Prozac and Topamax).
Upon patient contact, patient exhibiting anxiety with severe dissociative speech (either conduction or jargon aphasia, e.g., "I have two stomachs but the moon can hardly be held responsible for a syllable. YOU HAVE NO FEET!! You have no feet.") The RN denies any immediate trauma. With a verbal GCS response of 3, I can't really obtain any sort of verbal assessment; this patient wouldn't even respond, "yes" or "no" or shake their head. Pupils are bilaterally dilated to about 6mm but equal and responsive to light. V/S as follows; HR: 136 W/R, RR: 20 (No accessory muscle use or increased effort of breathing, but seemingly increased tidal volume), BP 150/90, BGL 146. No facial droop. No slurred speech.
Now I'm aware that this sort of speech disorder is common of Schizophrenia, but the RN denies any such history, stating, "Patient only has Bipolar Disorder." To which, I ask about the Topamax which I believe is for Seizures and am told, "No, no, no." When I bring up the tachycardia and hypertension, I'm told, "She's just anxious." So, I transport the patient to the requested facility (12 minutes out) as I'm hoping that the patient's primary physician will be able to answer some of these questions, but instead of taking directly to the psychiatric ward as requested, I decide to clear the patient through the ER for a medical evaluation first.
Well, apparently, according to the doctor, I should have followed the nurse's orders and taken the patient directly up to the psychiatric floor, which I disagree with. The reason for this, I was told, was that ER departments are unable to deal with involuntary psychiatric patients without prior notice (on that note for US practitioners: Is there some sort of EMTLA exception for psychiatric patients that I'm unaware of). Anyway, my patient was apparently medically cleared in a very short period of time, suggesting my assessment was lacking.
Did I overreact? Was this simply undiagnosed schizophrenia masking the symptoms of an anxiety attack? Was I wrong in seeing the apparent S/S of a possible OD? What about postictal from a recent, unwitnessed seizure as the Topamax suggests? Let me know what you think or where to look to learn more. Thanks