81 year old male at a SNF dispatched as respiratory distress / vent patient.
PMHx: HTN, A. Fib, CHF, Anemia, C. Diff (supposedly cleared, but still having watery stools), Resp Failure, questionable Renal Insufficiency, Vent Dependant (tracheostomy), currently being treated for pneumonia.
Rx: Cardizem, Acidophilus, Questran, Regular Insulin Coverage, Lasix, KCl,
Flagyl, Heparin, Percocet, Maxipene, Synthroid, Celexa, Prilosec, Metoprolol
Chief complaint was from the nurse (pt. unable to communicate): Respiratory distress. Patient was last hospitalized 2 weeks ago, and has been "like this" since being discharged. Today, they noticed rales which was the reason for EMS activation.
Patient presents as tachypneic (26 BPM on A.C. setting of 18 BPM), rales all the way to the calvicles, JVD, cool/pale/diaphoretic, edema to right arm (apparently normal), ascites, moderate edema to both legs (apparently normal) with pretty severe discoloration to both lower legs (apparently normal), pulse ox of 95%. Foley bag shows dark colored urine.
Initial v/s: 26 RR, 136 irregular HR, 110/60 BP. ECG: A. Fib between 130-140.
There were some secretions noted in the vent tubing, but tracheal suctioning did not remove any significantly excesssive secretions.
Nurse states this happened once in the past, and the MD ordered a fluid bolus which improved his status. ?????????
So, I'm concerned about the normotension and the pneumonia, but I decide to try a SL nitro and reassess (along with making sure the FiO2 was at 100%). I was sure I heard rales and not rhonchi, and the nurse denied any vomiting (plus he was trached). JVD was rather pronounced.
Give him 1st SL NTG, and his BP doesn't change. I go ahead and give 80 of Lasix IVP, and another SL. Still no change in BP and rales have not subsided at all. Give a third SL NTG and now his BP increases to 130/70 and his HR is 146.
Now we move him to our stretcher and get him to the bus. Since his BP hadn't dropped, I put on 1.5" NTP and I called med control for more NTG's. Had enough time to give 2 more en-route to hospital, and his BP on arrival was now 150/80 and a 148 HR (still A Fib).
No subsided rales, no change is general status, and urine output was increased (more watery/normal colored than the dark urine on arrival... ruling out Lasix toxicity).
While flipping through the SNF papers at the ED, I noticed he had a 12-lead 2 days prior which was computer interpreted as A.Fib (rate was about 90) and it was initialed (but no other notation of any practitioner interpretation. It was obvious A FLutter at about 3:1 or 4:1 conduction). I did notice the med sheet had many orders for Cardizem during this time, but the patient had never been sent to the hospital.
My main question here is... why did his BP go UP progressively with NTG treatment?? My med control physician couldn't give me an answer.
Thoughts?
PMHx: HTN, A. Fib, CHF, Anemia, C. Diff (supposedly cleared, but still having watery stools), Resp Failure, questionable Renal Insufficiency, Vent Dependant (tracheostomy), currently being treated for pneumonia.
Rx: Cardizem, Acidophilus, Questran, Regular Insulin Coverage, Lasix, KCl,
Flagyl, Heparin, Percocet, Maxipene, Synthroid, Celexa, Prilosec, Metoprolol
Chief complaint was from the nurse (pt. unable to communicate): Respiratory distress. Patient was last hospitalized 2 weeks ago, and has been "like this" since being discharged. Today, they noticed rales which was the reason for EMS activation.
Patient presents as tachypneic (26 BPM on A.C. setting of 18 BPM), rales all the way to the calvicles, JVD, cool/pale/diaphoretic, edema to right arm (apparently normal), ascites, moderate edema to both legs (apparently normal) with pretty severe discoloration to both lower legs (apparently normal), pulse ox of 95%. Foley bag shows dark colored urine.
Initial v/s: 26 RR, 136 irregular HR, 110/60 BP. ECG: A. Fib between 130-140.
There were some secretions noted in the vent tubing, but tracheal suctioning did not remove any significantly excesssive secretions.
Nurse states this happened once in the past, and the MD ordered a fluid bolus which improved his status. ?????????
So, I'm concerned about the normotension and the pneumonia, but I decide to try a SL nitro and reassess (along with making sure the FiO2 was at 100%). I was sure I heard rales and not rhonchi, and the nurse denied any vomiting (plus he was trached). JVD was rather pronounced.
Give him 1st SL NTG, and his BP doesn't change. I go ahead and give 80 of Lasix IVP, and another SL. Still no change in BP and rales have not subsided at all. Give a third SL NTG and now his BP increases to 130/70 and his HR is 146.
Now we move him to our stretcher and get him to the bus. Since his BP hadn't dropped, I put on 1.5" NTP and I called med control for more NTG's. Had enough time to give 2 more en-route to hospital, and his BP on arrival was now 150/80 and a 148 HR (still A Fib).
No subsided rales, no change is general status, and urine output was increased (more watery/normal colored than the dark urine on arrival... ruling out Lasix toxicity).
While flipping through the SNF papers at the ED, I noticed he had a 12-lead 2 days prior which was computer interpreted as A.Fib (rate was about 90) and it was initialed (but no other notation of any practitioner interpretation. It was obvious A FLutter at about 3:1 or 4:1 conduction). I did notice the med sheet had many orders for Cardizem during this time, but the patient had never been sent to the hospital.
My main question here is... why did his BP go UP progressively with NTG treatment?? My med control physician couldn't give me an answer.
Thoughts?
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