Question for those with more knowledge than me

Chimpie

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So that means that just about anyone can answer. LOL

On Monday, April 17, my girfriend (ex, what-ever-she is) lost her dad unexpectedly. He was 58. The ER docs ruled it SCA and no autopsy was required. The family did not request one.

Last night, after a memorial service was held, we were talking about how he was feeling over the last couple of days he was with us. For the previous few months he was complaining about pain in his leg, but being the stubborn man that he was, he never got it checked out. The day before he died he stated that the pain in his leg was gone and he never felt better.

The question that I have is: Is it possible that he had a small blood clot in his leg and it somehow got released and went to his heart, simulating SCA?

Thanks,

Chimp
 
It is very possible he could have thown a clot. Without an autopsy any medicaly related cause of death is difficult to determine.

BTW, I don't think I know more than you. :)
 
I agree with Kip...

And it wouldn't "simulate" an SCA-- it would be SCA. The clot could have easily floated around for a little while, then gotten sent to the coronary arteries, caused a blockage, and caused an MI, causing him to go into arrest.

If the same clot had gone up the carotid artery, it could have caused a stroke.

And I second Kip that an autopsy is the only way to be certain... and even then lots of autopsies are declared as "unknown" or other catch-alls.

Finially - Chimpie - I don't know more than you... some of us might have different knowledge and experiences. Also - you knew the answer, and just wanted to hear it from someone else to be sure.
 
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